Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 02:47
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Is it possible to become homeless after being released from jail or prison in the United States?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Has anyone tried bestiality and been caught?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What does it mean to live "the 'underconsumption' life"?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.